NMNC 4310 Mobility Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which findings are typically seen with a fractured hip?
• In spine injury management, what is included under ABCs?
• Spinal shock is best described as which of the following?
• Imaging for Bell's palsy is commonly used to rule out other conditions. Which imaging modalities are typically used?
• Which statement correctly differentiates paraplegia from tetraplegia?
• Which signs would raise suspicion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a mobility-impaired patient?
• On the Medical Research Council scale for muscle strength, what grade corresponds to movement against gravity?
• How can spasticity affect mobility and what are common management approaches?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?
• Post-operative SCFE patient with fever on day 3 and a wound that is draining: the nurse's priority concern is:
• Which is a post-op hip fracture complication besides pneumonia?
• In the management of mobility issues related to neurological function, which of the following is a typical treatment approach?
• Muscle atrophy is defined as which of the following?
• Which activity could a patient care tech undertake in SCI patient care?
• Tetraplegia is another term for which condition?
• Which domain is NOT typically evaluated when assessing cognitive capacity for mobility instructions?
• Which statement about log-rolling is true?
• Open reduction procedures for hip fracture repair require:
• Which symptom is commonly associated with spinal cord injury?
• Which item is appropriate to delegate to a patient care tech for an SCI patient?
• In a spinal cord injury patient experiencing autonomic dysreflexia with severe headache and hypertension, what is the first action the nurse should take?
• Which statement describes a task that can be delegated to a patient care tech for an SCI patient?
• What is the correct way to adjust a walker for a patient with hip osteoarthritis to optimize gait mechanics?
• What is an example of a task that can be delegated to a patient care tech for an SCI patient?
• A patient who fell presents with blood pressure 90/60, flaccid paralysis on one side, absent bowel sounds, no urine output, and a distended bladder. These findings most strongly indicate which condition?
• Which item should be documented after a mobility transfer?
• Cauda equina syndrome is best described as injury to which structure?
• Hemiparesis refers to which of the following?
• Which practice is NOT recommended to prevent contractures during prolonged immobility?
• Which term describes loss of movement in all four limbs?
• Which statement correctly describes rehabilitation for spinal cord injuries?
• Which statement describes a risk associated with skeletal traction?
• A client has an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a fractured hip. The nurse monitors this client for signs and symptoms of a fat embolism. Which client assessment finding reflects this complication?
• If spinal stability is uncertain after injury, what is the recommended course of action?
• Non-operative stabilization after a spine injury includes which of the following?
• For a patient diagnosed with spinal cord injury, which nursing diagnosis is considered priority?
• Which nursing interventions would the nurse avoid when providing care for a client with a fractured extremity?
• Which term describes a decrease in muscle mass due to disuse or injury?
• What are typical normal ROM values for shoulder flexion and shoulder abduction?
• Which outcome is most directly improved by a comprehensive mobility-focused physical therapy plan?
• Which factor is commonly associated with gait asymmetry?
• Discharge instructions for cast care: which is correct?
• Choose the task that a patient care tech can perform for an SCI patient?
• Which item is not typically included as a key component of a comprehensive musculoskeletal mobility assessment?
• Which action can be entrusted to a patient care tech in SCI care?
• What gait pattern might indicate cerebellar dysfunction or sensory ataxia?
• Partial cord transection is characterized by which statement?
• Identify a delegated task for a patient care tech in SCI care?
• Tetraplegia, also called quadriplegia, is defined as which?
• What is a common non-pharmacologic approach to managing spasticity?
• A common complication if an AFO is ill-fitting?
• In spinal cord injury, which statement describes sensory transmission as noted?
• In autonomic dysreflexia, which complication is considered the most dangerous?
• What is the purpose of a pressure-relieving mattress or cushion for immobile patients?
• Brown-Sequard syndrome is often due to which type of injury?
• Paraplegia is defined as which of the following?
• Which task is suitable for a patient care tech's role in SCI patient management?
• A patient with a history of spinal cord injury presents with severe headache, hypertension, bradycardia, and flushed face. Which intervention should be performed first?
• Which staffing practice is recommended to enhance safety during patient transfers?
• Capillary refill time of 2 seconds is considered which of the following?
• When assessing a patient with a spinal cord injury, what is the most priority intervention?
• Which statement best describes spinal shock?
• Which muscles primarily control knee extension during gait?
• What is gait?
• Which statement best summarizes the role of family training when using pediatric mobility devices?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a common cause of gait asymmetry?
• During patient transfers, which option directly reduces skin friction and injury risk?
• In Brown-Sequard syndrome, which deficit pattern is typical?
• A patient with a spinal cord injury has SpO2 89% and crackles. What is the priority nursing intervention?
• Which statement best defines paralysis?
• What is the primary use of the Functional Reach Test in fall-risk assessment?
• What is a common cause of decreased mobility in older adults?
• A patient with a T1 level spinal cord injury reports severe headache and an anxious feeling. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
• A patient with spinal cord injury asks to be turned to their side. Which precaution is essential to prevent injury?
• Bell's palsy is differentiated from stroke because it primarily affects which area?
• Which medications are listed under Meds for spine injury treatment?
• Which knee joint is most commonly implicated in mobility-limiting osteoarthritis?
• Which of the following activities could be performed by a patient care tech for an SCI patient?
• Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in blood pressure within minutes of standing. Which threshold best describes this drop?
• What action should be performed frequently to relieve pressure on immobile patients?
• Activity tolerance is described as which concept?
• Halo traction is described as what?
• Which statement about injury level and autonomic dysfunction is true?
• How are gait belts and transfer belts typically used in mobility care?
• For a spinal cord injury patient, which task can be delegated to a patient care tech?
• Buck's traction is commonly described as a form of skin traction. Which statement accurately describes it?
• In skeletal traction, which statement is true?
• Bell's palsy is characterized by which of the following?
• Which complications are commonly associated with prolonged immobility?
• What is a primary action in the treatment of a spine injury?
• Which is included in post-op hip fracture care?
• In the SCI patient care scenario, which action is suitable for delegation to a patient care tech?
• Which screening tool is commonly used to assess fall risk in adult inpatients, and what is its general purpose?
• Injury involving T1–L2 spinal segments most likely leads to which problem?
• How does a fractured hip present?
• Which of the following is recommended for hip fracture prevention?
• A compression fracture is described as which of the following?
• Range of motion is defined as which?
• Which symptom is associated with Bell's palsy due to paralysis of the stapedius muscle?
• A spinal injury at C4 most directly affects which function?
• What is a key reason to maintain joint mobility above and below the injury during mobility training after spinal cord injury?
• Spinal shock lasts which of the following time frames?
• How is mobility training tailored for a patient with a spinal cord injury?
• Which muscles primarily control hip extension during gait?
• Which finding is least consistent with neurovascular compromise?
• Which intervention would the nurse perform first to manage the condition of a client with autonomic dysreflexia?
• List two strategies for conservation of energy during mobility tasks.
• Why is foot clearance during the swing phase important in gait?
• Which item is included in home readiness for spinal cord injury to monitor fluid status?
• Which of the following is an example of a neurological mobility issue?
• Which statement best captures the primary purpose of pediatric assistive devices in mobility?
• Describe log-rolling and its clinical indications.
• Name key considerations when selecting and fitting a walker for a patient.
• Which of the following is included in tertiary prevention for spinal cord injuries?
• Which action is among the initial steps in treating autonomic dysreflexia?
• In spinal cord injuries, a typical approach focuses on fixing orthopedic issues through surgery.
• Spinal shock is characterized by which of the following?
• What is the recommended technique to protect the spine when turning a patient with spinal injury?
• Which action is most appropriate when moving a client with a suspected spinal injury during assessment?
• Which assessment finding most strongly suggests a neurovascular problem in an injured limb?
• A partial cord transection is often caused by which type of injury?
• Which action is specifically important for maintaining skin integrity in a patient with traction for a spinal cord injury?
• Injury at C1–C3 commonly causes which respiratory finding?
• What posture recommendations minimize back pain during seated mobility?
• Which practice best helps minimize skin injury risk during patient transfers?
• Which duty can a patient care tech handle in the SCI patient plan of care?
• Which standardized test is frequently used to assess functional mobility and fall risk among older adults?
• Which of the following is an early warning sign of overexertion during mobility training?
• Define a contracture and provide a primary prevention strategy.
• Which surgical option is used for hip fracture repair?
• What is the purpose of a slide sheet in patient handling?
• Which ambulatory device is typically used for poor balance or leg weakness to provide greater support?
• Which care is included in the management of Bell's palsy?
• What symptom can orthostatic hypotension cause that increases fall risk?
• A patient has tingling and numbness in his right leg following application of a long leg cast. The patient’s discomfort is most likely the result of:
• If numbness or tingling occurs in a limb covered by a cast, which finding would be most concerning and require prompt assessment?
• A flexion injury may show which findings?
• Which factor is essential to address when planning discharge home for a spinal cord injury patient?
• What is a unique consideration when using assistive devices in pediatric mobility?
• Which task should be assigned to a patient care tech for an SCI patient?
• Which complication would the nurse monitor for in a client on strict bed rest for 3 days?
• What are common signs of autonomic dysreflexia?
• What is the role of physical therapy in mobility management?
• Which factor is not typically considered when assessing safe bed mobility for a patient with limited leg movement?
• What is one of the initial actions in spine injury management?
• In the care plan for a client with paraplegia, which action supports body alignment?
• What is the primary objective of mobility interventions in geriatrics?
• Which component should be documented after a patient transfer to ensure safety and continuity of care?
• For a client with a fractured femur, a nurse is alert to the possibility of a fat embolus. The nurse specifically watches for:
• How does effective pain management influence mobility outcomes?
• Which statement best describes how rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis differ in joint involvement and symptoms affecting mobility?
• Why are hydration and proper nutrition important for mobility in older adults?
• SCIWORA stands for which of the following?
• An expected outcome of cast application that the nurse evaluates is:
• Name a common post-op complication of hip fracture.
• The nurse is providing care to a client. Which nursing action has the highest priority when the nurse is moving a client with a neck and spinal cord injury during the assessment process?
• Botulism is described as nerve paralysis due to toxin buildup. Which mechanism explains this paralysis?
• What elbow angle is recommended when using a walker for hip OA?
• How do PROM and AROM differ?
• What essential components should be documented when recording a patient transfer?
• When teaching cast care, the nurse instructs the client to:
• Hemiplegia is defined as which of the following?
• Injury at or above which level most commonly causes hypotension and bradycardia due to autonomic disruption?
• Which intervention is part of the care for a patient with botulism?
• Which cast condition requires immediate nursing assessment?
• Autonomic dysreflexia is defined as what?
• A commonly cited potential cause of Bell's palsy is:
• Which of the following is a key component of a musculoskeletal mobility assessment that is specifically about body alignment?
• In mobility equipment, which intervention helps reduce skin shear during transfers?
• How is weight-bearing status determined after fracture or surgery?
• Neurogenic (vasogenic) shock is caused by which mechanism?
• Which of the following is listed as part of spine injury treatment to prevent complications?
• Which assessment findings alert the nurse that the client who has a spinal cord injury is developing autonomic hyperreflexia (autonomic dysreflexia)?
• A patient with a femur fracture develops shortness of breath and petechiae on the face. The nurse should be concerned about which condition?
• Which of the following is included in the diagnosis and care for mobility issues related to neurological function?
• Which of the following is a secondary prevention measure for spinal cord injury rehabilitation?
• Which is part of post-op hip fracture education on mobility and safety?
• The nurse finds the client on the floor, crying for help, with signs of a hip fracture. Which action would the nurse take first?
• Which factors are considered when assessing safe bed mobility for a patient with limited leg movement?
• Operative stabilization after a spine injury includes which hardware?
• To support mobility and independence in spinal cord injury care, which practice is emphasized?
• What is a primary reason for weight-bearing restrictions after fracture or surgery?
• Endurance in a musculoskeletal mobility assessment refers to the ability to sustain activity over time, including activities of daily living. True or false?
• Which medication will be given to help control muscle spasms in this context?
• Buck's skin traction for hip fracture works by:
• Baclofen is primarily used in spinal cord injury management to treat which symptom?
• While in Buck's extension traction, the client may be positioned:
• Which of the following is a cardinal motor symptom affecting mobility in Parkinson's disease?
• Which statement about hydration and orthostatic tolerance in older adults is correct?
• A hyperextension injury is characterized by what spinal position?
• In autonomic dysreflexia management, how frequently should blood pressure be monitored?
• In caring for an SCI patient, which task is appropriate for delegation to a patient care tech?
• Which of the following is NOT a consideration for pediatric mobility assistive devices?
• What best describes a stand-pivot transfer and when is it typically used?
• Which seating consideration addresses prevention of pressure injuries and comfort for mobility-impaired individuals?
• Which statement about functional mobility in activities of daily living is true?
• Which task is appropriate for delegation to a patient care tech in an SCI patient’s care plan?
• A 9-year-old child has a fractured tibia, and a full leg cast is applied. Which assessment finding would the nurse immediately report to the health care provider?
• Which infection risks are particularly important to monitor in spinal cord injury patients during rehabilitation?
• Define postural control and name the systems that contribute to it.
• What is the primary purpose of an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)?
• Which is NOT a typical component of a contracture prevention program?
• Which statement best describes the difference between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis in terms of mobility impact?
• Which nonpharmacological measure can help reduce pain for an acute limb injury with a splint?
• To reduce the risk of dislocation after hip fracture repair, which guideline is recommended?
• Which statement accurately reflects obesity's impact on mobility?
• A known risk factor for botulism in children is:
• Which item helps prevent hip rotation after hip fracture surgery?